I happened to be skimming through Thomas Vincent’s The Shorter Catechism Explained from Scripture today. I am admittedly not familiar with Vincent at all, and am not well-read on such commentaries.
Concerning baptism, question 94, he writes:
Q. 10. What are the benefits of the covenant of grace, which by
baptism we are made partakers of?
A. The benefits of the covenant of grace, which by baptism we are
made partakers of, are–
- Admission into the visible Church. “Go, teach all nations,
baptizing them,” etc. --Matthew 28:19.- Remission of sins by Christ’s blood. “Be baptized every one of you
in the name of Jesus Christ, for the remission of sins.” --Acts 2:38.- Regeneration and sanctification by Christ’s Spirit. “According to
his mercy he saved us, by the washing of regeneration, and renewing
of the Holy Ghost.” --Titus 3:5.- Adoption, together with our union unto Christ. “For ye are all the
children of God by faith in Christ Jesus: for as many of you as have
been baptized into Christ have put on Christ.” --Galatians 3:26,27.- Resurrection to everlasting life. “If the dead rise not at all, why are
they then baptized for the dead?” --1Corinthians 15:29. “We are
buried with him by baptism into death,” etc. “If we have been planted
together in the likeness of his death, we shall be also in the likeness
of his resurrection.” --Romans 6:4,6
I am trying to understand if Vincent’s view here is representative of what y’all understand to be Reformed orthodoxy.
I certainly “Amen” his list as being accurate in terms of what benefits are conferred upon those who are made to be partakers of the covenant of grace. However, it seems to me that he goes too far–even for a paedobaptist–to assert that baptism itself makes us to be partakers of each of these benefits. My understanding of the Reformed position of paedobaptism (mind you, I speak as a credobaptist on the outside looking in) has been that item #1 on Vincent’s list would be conferred to those who are baptized as a matter of fact, but that #2-5 are conferred upon those who are, in fact, joined to Christ by personal faith.
Is Vincent going beyond Reformed orthodoxy here, or does he represent it faithfully and I am just not understanding his meaning?
As I would try to give the benefit of the doubt, I wonder if he is referring to baptism in its full efficacious sense, as conveyed in WCF 28.6, which makes a distinction between the act of baptism–which can be administered to anyone–and the grace of baptism, which is conferred, in the final analysis, only to those whom “grace belongeth unto,” namely, the elect.
As it stands, his language gives strong sacramentalist vibes to me.
Thanks.