Ok, well let’s go back to the title of this conversation: Does 1 Cor 7:27-28 refer to divorced people?
That is my question, and considering the disagreement among translations and commentaries, it seems to have some complications.
(Personally, I want these verses to refer to divorced people, and so I’m hoping for more impartiality to test that reading.)
In my attempt to work it through, I think there are good reasons for saying, “Yes”.
The phrase “bound to a husband/man” in v39 obviously refers to marriage in that context. It makes sense, then, that “bound to a wife/woman” in v27 refers to marriage also.
The next sentence in v27 “Do not seek to be loosed” would naturally mean, do not seek to be free from the marriage through divorce, (not death…unless Paul was saying, “Don’t kill your spouse” which is unlikely). He has just been talking about divorce after all.
Paul then says in v27, “Have you been loosed from a wife/woman?” Unless Paul in the previous phrase is forbiding the killing of your wife, it reads most naturally that here he is talking about divorce again.
Paul then says, “Do not seek a wife”, but continues on in v28 to say, “But if you do marry, you have not sinned”, i.e. remarriage after divorce is not a sin.
The arguments against this reading usually come down to identifying the people referred to in v27 as betrothed couples, but while vv36-38 appear to refer to betrothed couples, Paul is not using the same wording as he does in v39 where marriage is clearly in view (and so v27).
My own view of divorce and remarriage is close to your own. Even if v27-28 does not refer to divorced people, I still hold that divorced people can remarry without sinning from the rest of the biblical teaching on the subject. It just seems that the often tense discussions about the matter would be over if we had this explicit statement confirmed.